What If Our Views Of Hell Are Wrong?
Image hell for a minute or two.
As you see those pictures of hell in your mind, consider these questions. Where did those images come from? Were they formed and shaped simply by the Scripture in it's original languages? Or is it possible that those images were greatly influenced by pagan belief and ideas which infiltrated the church about five hundred years after the time of Christ? Is it even remotely possible that the popular orthodox view of hell has been formed primarily by Dante's Inferno rather than the Scriptures?
In your opinion, what purpose does hell actually serve? Is it a torture chamber where people will be forced to endure merciless and unending agony as an expression of God's justice? If that is the case, how could a never ending torturous penalty for a limited amount of sin be considered true justice?
If God commands us to love our enemies, forgive over and over again, and to be merciful, has He called us to a higher standard than He holds Himself to?
How did the penalty for sin pronounced upon Adam and Eve (death) morph into the doctrine of eternal conscious torment in hell? If eternal torture is the penalty for sin, why didn't God say so at the very beginning?
Why is it that in some places in the Old Testament the word frequently translated as hell in the King James Version is also simply translated as grave?
As you read through the New Testament, you frequently come across red letters. These are the words of Christ. Did you know that when you read the word hell in red letters (the Greek word Gehenna) it is actually the name of a literal geographic location just outside Jerusalem? If you ever take a trip to Israel you can literally visit Gehenna. If Jesus was talking about a fiery furnace in the underworld, why would he have used the name of a valley just outside the city?
When asked to describe hell, many will say that it is eternal separation from God. If that is the case, how could the Psalmist say: "If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: If I make my bed in hell, behold thou art there." How can one be in the presence of God and separated from God simultaneously? Is it possible that rather than hell, this word should have been translated as "grave" as it was in many other passages in the Old Testament? If that is the case, what about all the other references to hell in the King James Bible?
Is the problem the Scripture in the original language? Or is the problem with some of our English translations and many of our traditions? If hell is a condition that is unending for any who enter into it, how could David say, "Thou wilt not leave my soul in hell" (Acts 2:27). If as many teach the wages of sin is eternal conscious torment in hell and they also teach that Jesus suffered in hell for the sins of humanity, how could he have paid the full penalty without continuing to this day and through all eternity to be in hell?
As you take time to prayerfully and thoughtfully consider these questions, you may very well find yourself in the position of having to re-think some of your beliefs. If fact, if you take the approach of the Bereans and you begin to search for the answers yourself in the Bible, you might find that the redeeming work of Christ is far greater than you ever thought possible and that the ultimate plans of our heavenly Father are far more beautiful than orthodox teaching and creeds have ever given Him credit for.
In upcoming articles the focus will be on the four words that have been translated as hell in some of our English translations of the Scripture.
About the Author
Guitarist and blogger James Flanders is a former religious guy who is convinced that for most of his life he was missing out on the greatness of the atoning work of Jesus Christ. He has now come to embrace the Gospel of grace and it's far reaching affects as taught by the Apostle Paul.http://www.cdbaby.com/cd/jtflanders
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